Please Choose The Correct Answer 1) The Execution Or Accomplishment Of A Project To Fulfill

Question

Please choose the correct answer:

1) The execution or accomplishment of a project to fulfill

customer requirements in accordance

with the project scope best defines

A) performance.

B) task.

C) objective.

D) activity.

2) The superiority or excellence of primary operating characteristics of a product best describes

A) durability.

B) serviceability.

C) performance.

D) features.

3) The extent to which a product is unlikely to fail or break down best describes

A) reliability.

B) conformance.

C) serviceability.

D) aesthetics.

4) The degree to which a set of inherent characteristics of a project fulfill project scope best

defines

A) scope durability.

B) project reliability.

C) project quality.

D) project performance.

5) Which of the following was defined by Edwards Deming as a predictable degree of uniformity

and dependability at low cost suitable to the market?

A) reliability

B) durability

C) serviceability

D) quality

6) Crosby, Deming, and Juran suggest achieving outstanding quality requires

A) quality leadership from senior management.

B) a customer focus.

C) continuous improvement based on rigorous analysis of processes.

D) all of the above.

7) Components of quality management include

A) customer satisfaction.

B) defect prevention.

C) continuous improvement.

D) all of the above.

8) A family of standards that addresses quality management to help organizations to fulfill the

quality requirements of the customer with applicable regulatory requirements while aiming to

enhance customer satisfaction and achieve continual process and quality improvement describes

the

A) ISO 892 family.

B) ISO 9000 family.

C) TCP/IP 920 family.

D) BORAC 764 family.

9) Which of the following is a prestigious award in performance for an organization?

A) Malcom Baldridge National Quality Award

B) AITP National Quality Award

C) Crosby Nash National Quality Award

D) PMBOK National Award for Quality

10) A set of activities planned at the beginning of the project that helps achieve quality in a

project describes

A) risk mitigation plan.

B) project quality plan.

C) project scope plan.

D) feasibility study.

11) A process to measure the performance of an organization and compare that measure with

other organizations in the same industry to understand industry best practices defines

A) project initiation.

B) project scope planning.

C) benchmarking.

D) contingency planning.

12) A process used to evaluate project performance periodically and ensure that the project will

satisfy the quality standards of an organization best defines

A) project baseline evaluation.

B) scope development.

C) risk mitigation.

D) quality assurance.

13) A review of the quality plan to determine whether the project activities comply with

organizational and project policies, processes, and procedures defines

A) quality audit.

B) benchmarking.

C) risk management.

D) configuration management.

14) A quality audit needs to do each of the following

except

A) identify all the processes and procedures of the project.

B) identify the audit inspection steps.

C) identify all the constraints of the project.

D) identify all the issues with the project.

15) During planned audits, which of the following is discussed and concretized between the

auditor and the team?

A) the actual date of the audit

B) the location of project plans and artifacts to be audited

C) the names of project team members whom the auditor can contact should questions arise

D) All of the above are correct.

16) Which of the following follows all the steps outlined in the process improvement plan in

order to identify the improvements necessary to enhance the quality of a project?

A) quality process analysis

B) quality inspections

C) quality audit

D) quality work review

17) Quality process analysis steps include each of the following

except

A) describe and prioritize accountabilities.

B) activate contingency plan.

C) establish performance monitoring.

D) describe and analyze processes.

18) The operational technique and activity used to fulfill quality requirements best describes

A) quality process analysis.

B) risk analysis.

C) quality control.

D) configuration management.

19) Tools and techniques used in quality control include

A) process maps.

B) control charts.

C) statistical sampling.

D) all of the above.

20) Which of the following provide a visual model of how inputs, activities, and outputs of a

process are linked and are the most fundamental of all process design and process improvement

tools?

A) process maps

B) control charts

C) Six Sigma

D) run charts

22) Which of the following is a tool used to determine whether a project or a business process is

in a state of statistical control?

A) run chart

B) SPC control chart

C) process map

D) Pareto chart

23) The application of statistical methods to monitor and control a process in order to reduce

variability best defines

A) testing and inspection.

B) scope analysis.

C) statistical process control.

D) random review.

4) Control charts used in controlling quality include

A) X-bar charts.

B) R-charts.

C) P-charts.

D) all of the above.

25) A process control chart used to monitor the sample means of variables that result from a

process and is often used in quality control best defines

A) X-bar charts.

B) R-charts.

C) P-charts.

D) C-charts.

26) A computer crashing is an example of a(n)

A) reviewable cause.

B) assignable cause.

C) unassignable cause.

D) disruptive cause.

26) Control charts that monitor the dispersion or variability of the process are

A) P-charts.

B) C-charts.

C) R-charts.

D) X-bar charts.

27) Which of the following measures the proportion of items in a sample that are defective?

A) PERT charts

B) X-bar charts

C) C-charts

D) P-charts

28) A critical aspect of quality control and evaluates the ability of a project process to meet or

exceed the expectations or preset specifications best describes

A) process capability.

B) risk assessment.

C) resource breakdown structure.

D) cluster sampling.

28) A process capability index above 1 means that the process variability

A) just meets specifications and the process is minimally capable.

B) is tighter than specifications and the process exceeds minimal capability.

C) is outside the range of specification, the process is not capable of producing within

specification, and the process must be improved.

D) is none of the above.

29) A process capability index equal to 1 means that the process variability

A) just meets specifications and the process is minimally capable.

B) is tighter than specifications and the process exceeds minimal capability.

C) is outside the range of specification, the process is not capable of producing within

specification, and the process must be improved.

D) is none of the above.

30) A statistical method for identifying which factors influence specific variables of a product or

process and which variable has the greatest effect best describes

A) process capability.

B) statistical control process.

C) design of experiments.

D) statistical sampling.

31) Which of the following is the sampling selection method where every member of the

population is given an equal chance?

A) judgment sampling

B) cluster sampling

C) quota sampling

D) simple random sampling

32) Which of the following is the sampling selection method where the population is stratified by

important variables, and the required quota is obtained from each stratum or level?

A) judgment sampling

B) cluster sampling

C) quota sampling

D) simple random sampling

33) Which of the following is the sampling selection method that uses deliberate choices of

information and excludes any random process?

A) judgment sampling

B) cluster sampling

C) quota sampling

D) simple random sampling

34) The range in which the true value of the population is estimated best defines level of

A) confidence.

B) precision.

C) variability.

D) viability.

35) The likelihood that the result obtained from the sample is within the level of precision

defines level of

A) confidence.

B) flexibility.

C) variability.

D) viability.

Information Security